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Data Analysis

Daniel Shears
Daniel Shears
1,266 Points
Posted by Daniel Shears
Daniel Shears
1,266 Points

Why does the difference between frequency of ages give us insight into which ages have an easier time qualifying?

Why is the difference in frequency between age groups used as a metric to assess how easy/hard it is to qualify? If there are a high number of runners in a given age group relative to the uniform distribution (and hence a high difference with the previous age group), doesn't this imply more of them entered the race than the age group immediately preceding them, therefore they had an easier time entering? And why is difference with the previous age group used as the metric, as opposed to just the raw frequency/representation of that age group in the race? I hope this makes sense!

Rick Gleitz
Rick Gleitz
47,840 Points
Rick Gleitz
Rick Gleitz
47,840 Points

What course is this question from?

Daniel Shears
Daniel Shears
1,266 Points
Daniel Shears
Daniel Shears
1,266 Points

Hi Rick. This is from the Data Analysis course.

Rick Gleitz
Rick Gleitz
47,840 Points
Rick Gleitz
Rick Gleitz
47,840 Points

Sorry it's taking so long to answer this, but I've been taking a course of study for Python. I've just now finished the Treehouse portion of the course, so I can free up a bit of time for finding out an answer to your question. I really don't understand the context of your question, but I hope to be able to after taking the Data Analysis Basics course in the next week (I've never taken it.) Hopefully, I'll be able to reply sometime next week.

1 Answer

Rick Gleitz
Rick Gleitz
47,840 Points
Rick Gleitz
Rick Gleitz
47,840 Points

Sorry I never answered. I did take the course, but I couldn't come up with an answer to your question. The only thing that ever popped into my head had to do with the difference in years between the starting age of an age group and the end age of that same group (I want to call this the bin size), but I can't pinpoint exactly why. Guess it's above my current knowledge level.